1) Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary body of knowledge with strong ties to all of the following disciplines EXCEPT:
2) Which of the following statements about organizational behavior is NOT accurate?
A. organizational behavior seeks to improve the quality of work life.
B. organizational behavior has strong ties to the behavioral sciences and allied social sciences.
C. organizational behavior seeks to improve the performance of people, groups, and organizations.
D. organizational behavior is divorced from the disciplines of political science and economics.
3) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics.
A. performance management.
B. organizational behavior.
C. workgroup analysis.
4) Organizations are encouraged to develop a dominant and coherent set of __________. Although every member may not agree with them, all members will know they are important.
A. common perceptions
B. observable attitudes
C. shared values
D. implicit needs
5) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.
A. implicit culture
B. shared values
C. common culture
D. observable culture
6) Which of the following statements about the management of organizational culture is NOT correct?
A. corporate culture can be managed by using organizational development techniques to modify specific elements of the culture that address both external adaptation and internal integration.
B. good managers are able to help build resilient cultures in situations where the features of strong cultures are absent.
C. dictate rules from the top of the organization.
D. corporate culture can be managed by directly modifying the observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions that deal with issues of external adaptation.
7) According to the research conducted on the nature of managerial work, which of the following is false?
A. managers spend much time working alone.
B. managers work long hours.
C. managers work with many communication media.
D. managers work at fragmented and varied tasks.
8) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon.
9) A person who is a __________ assumes a unique responsibility for work that is accomplished largely through the efforts of other people.
A. change agent
B. human resources director
C. manager or team leader
D. team member
10) Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct?
A. Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures.
B. In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the words are spoken.
C. In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the context, which includes body language, the physical setting and past relationships.
D. Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.
11) There are six sources of noise that are common to most interpersonal exchanges. These six sources are __________.
A. mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of feedback, proximity problems, absence of commitment to effective communication, and status effects.
B. cultural differences, physical distractions, semantic problems, mixed messages, absence of feedback, and status effects.
C. tangible distractions, people problems, inconsistent messages, cultural differences, absence of prior planning, and absence of feedback.
D. semantic problems, proximity problems, mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of planning, and status effects.
12) __________ are important to spot since non-verbals can add insight into what is really being said in face-to-face communication.
A. Perceptual distractions.
B. Mixed messages.
C. Merged messages.
D. Mangled messages.
13) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.
A. Teams that evaluate things.
B. Teams that run things.
C. Teams that review things.
D. Teams that make or do things.
14) A high-performing team can be created by doing the all of the following EXCEPT:
A. making sure members have the right skills.
B. creating a sense of urgency.
C. communicating high-performance standards.
D. ensuring that new information is kept to a minimum.
15) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.
A. Teams that study things.
B. Teams that run things.
C. Teams that recommend things.
D. Teams that review things.
16) The conflict management style of __________ involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by trying to fully satisfy everyone’s concerns by working through differences and finding and solving problems so that everyone gains.
17) Suppose that a manager responds to a disagreement between subordinates by saying: “I don’t want to get in the middle of your personal disputes.” This manager is using which conflict management style?
B. authoritative command
18) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style?
19) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.
A. perceptions on-the-job.
B. pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.
C. the relationship between values and attitudes.
D. the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.
20) Process theories focus on _________________.
A. when a person will react to specific management styles.
B. who will be a more appropriate manager for an employee.
C. how a person will respond to types of leadership direction.
D. why a person decides to behave in a certain way relative to available rewards and work opportunities.
21) In the context of motivation, level refers to __________.
A. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.
B. the consequences of an individual’s behavior.
C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
D. the amount of effort a person puts forth.
22) Unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great advantages of high-performance organizations.
23) Which of the following statements about heterogeneous teams is not accurate?
A. research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of development.
B. unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great advantages of high-performance organizations.
C. heterogeneous teams have members who are diverse in demography, experiences, life styles, and cultures, among other variables.
D. diversity offers a rich pool of information, talent, and varied perspectives that can help improve team problem solving and increase creativity.
24) Diversity offers a rich pool of information, talent, and varied perspectives that can help improve team problem solving and increase creativity.
25) Stress is a state of tension experienced by individuals facing extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities.
26) Eustress has a negative impact on both attitudes and performance.
27) Wellness involves maintaining physical and mental health to better deal with stress when it occurs.
28) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?
A. the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points.
B. Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person.
C. the basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.
D. experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs
29) Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people __________.
A. are willing to use coercive power to gain influence.
B. learn from personal failures.
C. are willing to learn new things as a means of gaining expert power.
D. obey the commands of an authority figure.
30) In today’s modern organization the base for power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following statements about legitimacy regarding power is NOT correct?
A. in firms, the legitimacy of those at the top increasingly derives from their positions as representatives for various constituencies.
B. in U.S. firms, “higher authority” denotes those close to the top of the corporate pyramid.
C. senior managers may justify their lofty positions within organizations by separating themselves from stockholders.
D. in other societies, “higher authority” does not have a bureaucratic or organizational reference but consists of those with moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious leaders, etc.
31) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose.
32) A high-performing team can be created by finding ways to create early successes, establishing clear rules for team behavior, setting the tone in the first team meeting, and, as a leader, modeling expected behaviors.
33) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance standards, having members spend time together, creating a sense of urgency, making sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance.
34) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true EXCEPT:
A. FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by organizations.
B. the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational, three transactional one non-transactional factor.
C. some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general leadership model that would trim or eliminate the numerous models now emphasized today.
D. the approach is built around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire.
35) All of the following statements about shared leaderships are correct EXCEPT:
A. leadership is restricted among a set of individuals who act in the role of a superior.
B. leadership today is not restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single individual but to other people as well.
C. the key distinction between shared leadership and traditional models of leadership is that the influence process involves more than just downward influence on subordinates by an appointed or elective e leader.
D. the influence process often involves peer or lateral influence.
36) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:
A. charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven.
B. self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented.
C. implicit, explicit, specific, detailed.
D. autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented.
37) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more __________ form.
38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.
A. boiled frog phenomenon
B. impatience trap
C. proactive phenomenon
D. immobility trap
39) The __________ and the __________ are important ways in which firms learn to co-evolve by altering their environments.
A. use of corporate philanthropy… influence of governments
B. influence of governments…development of alliances
C. management of networks…development of alliances
D. management of networks… influence of governments
MGT 307 F