MGT 307 Final Exam (Set-3) A + Work - 41455

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1) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of the following EXCEPT: 

A. use of scientific methods. 

B. contingency thinking. 

C. an interdisciplinary body of knowledge. 

D. an emphasis on finding the “one best way” to complete a task. 


2) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics. 

A. performance management. 

B. workgroup analysis. 

C. motivation. 

D. organizational behavior. 


3) Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary body of knowledge with strong ties to all of the following disciplines EXCEPT: 

A. sociology. 

B. anthropology. 

C. physics. 

D. psychology. 


4) Organizations are encouraged to develop a dominant and coherent set of __________. Although every member may not agree with them, all members will know they are important. 

A. common perceptions 

B. shared values 

C. implicit needs 

D. observable attitudes 


5) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________. 

A. observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions. 

B. explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions. 

C. shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission. 

D. implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences. 


6) Managers can modify the __________ of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas. 

A. verbal aspects

B. oral aspects 

C. visible aspects 

D. vocal aspects 


7) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon. 

A. False 

B. True 


8) Common forms of unintentional ethics lapses that individuals should guard against include all of the following EXCEPT: 

A. favoring others who can benefit someone. 

B. promoting people who excel in their respective positions. 

C. claiming too much personal credit for one's performance contributions. 

D. prejudice that derives from unconscious stereotypes and attitudes. 


9) When it comes to ethics and morality, scholar Archie B. Carroll draws a distinction between __________. 

A. immoral managers, amoral managers and ethical managers 

B. amoral managers, ethical managers and moral managers 

C. immoral managers, ethical managers and unethical managers 

D. immoral managers, amoral managers and moral managers 


10) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________. 

A. geographic differences

B. lifestyle differences 

C. language differences 

D. religious differences 


11) There are six sources of noise that are common to most interpersonal exchanges. These six sources are __________. 

A. semantic problems, proximity problems, mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of planning, and status effects.

B. tangible distractions, people problems, inconsistent messages, cultural differences, absence of prior planning, and absence of feedback. 

C. cultural differences, physical distractions, semantic problems, mixed messages, absence of feedback, and status effects. 

D. mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of feedback, proximity problems, absence of commitment to effective communication, and status effects. 


12) Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct? 

A. Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word. 

B. In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the context, which includes body language, the physical setting and past relationships. 

C. In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the words are spoken. 

D. Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures. 


13) Members of __________ must have good long-term working relationships with one another, solid operating systems, and the external support needed to achieve effectiveness over a sustained period of time. 

A. teams that plan things.

B. teams that review things. 

C. teams that reengineer things. 

D. teams that make or do things. 


14) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives. 

A. Teams that review things. 

B. Teams that make or do things. 

C. Teams that run things. 

D. Teams that evaluate things. 


15) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled. 

A. Teams that recommend things. 

B. Teams that review things. 

C. Teams that run things.

D. Teams that study things. 


16) Whenever he is involved in a disagreement, Harry tries to partially satisfy both his concerns and the other party's concerns through bargaining and appropriate trade-offs. Harry uses which conflict management style? 

A. avoidance

B. collaboration 

C. accommodation 

D. compromise 


17) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She goes against the wishes of others and uses her authority to gain compliance. Sheila uses which conflict management style? 

A. competition 

B. compromise 

C. collaboration 

D. accommodation 


18) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style? 

A. avoidance 

B. compromise 

C. competition 

D. accommodation


 19) In the context of motivation, level refers to __________. 

A. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy. 

B. the amount of effort a person puts forth. 

C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action. 

D. the consequences of an individual's behavior. 


20) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________. 

A. perceptions on-the-job. 

B. the impact of individual ethics on business decisions. 

C. the relationship between values and attitudes. 

D. pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs. 


21) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to __________. 

A. an individual's choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives. 

B. the amount of effort a person puts forth. 

C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action. 

D. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy. 


22) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced performance potential once things are worked out. 

A. True 

B. False 


23) In general, chances for long-term group success are better when the group input foundations – tasks; goals, rewards, and resources; technology; membership diversity; and group size – are stronger. 

A. True 

B. False 


24) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team's life or stage of development. 

A. True 

B. False 


25) Eustress has a negative impact on both attitudes and performance. 

A. True 

B. False 


26) Wellness involves maintaining physical and mental health to better deal with stress when it occurs.

 A. True 

B. False 


27) Stress is a state of tension experienced by individuals facing extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities. 

A. True 

B. False 


28) Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people __________. 

A. are willing to use coercive power to gain influence. 

B. obey the commands of an authority figure. 

C. learn from personal failures. 

D. are willing to learn new things as a means of gaining expert power. 


29) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram's experiments? 

A. the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points. 

B. experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs 

C. Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person.

 D. the basic conclusion of Milgram's studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority. 


30) Which of the following statements about power and organizational politics is NOT correct? 

A. power and politics always exist in organizations. 

B. managers derive their power from personal and organizational sources. 

C. power and politics represent the seamy side of management, since organizations are not democracies composed of individuals with equal influence. 

D. few instances exist where individual and organizational interests are compatible. 


31) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team's purpose. 

A. True 

B. False 


32) High-performance teams have special characteristics that allow them to excel at teamwork and achieve special performance advantages. 

A. True 

B. False 


33) A high-performing team can be created by finding ways to create early successes, establishing clear rules for team behavior, setting the tone in the first team meeting, and, as a leader, modeling expected behaviors. 

A. True 

B. False 


34) _________________ is often used in combination with vertical leadership. 

A. shared leadership 

B. organizational goal setting 

C. power negotiation 

D. individual leadership 


35) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true EXCEPT: 

A. C. FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by organizations. 

B. B. the approach is built around revisions to Bass' Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire. 

C. A. the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational, three transactional one non-transactional factor. 

D. D. some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general leadership model that would trim or eliminate the numerous models now emphasized today. 


36) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are: 

A. charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven. 

B. autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented. 

C. self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented. 

D. implicit, explicit, specific, detailed. 


37) The __________ and the __________ are important ways in which firms learn to co-evolve by altering their environments. 

A. management of networks… influence of governments 

B. use of corporate philanthropy… influence of governments 

C. management of networks…development of alliances 

D. influence of governments…development of alliances 


38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.

 A. impatience trap 

B. boiled frog phenomenon 

C. proactive phenomenon 

D. immobility trap 


39) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more __________ form. 

A. mechanistic 

B. bureaucratic 

C. centralized 

D. organic




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MGT 307

MGT 307 4.doc
MGT 307 4.doc